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Post by Justin on Feb 9, 2012 11:38:04 GMT -7
Going through Colosians 2:21, I've come across some Aorist Middle Subjunctives (2nd person) and an Aorist Active Subjunctive. Most English translations present these as Present Imperatives but my question is how would we better translate these?
My (limited) understanding of the Aorist tense is that it occurs in the past with the exception of an Aorist Infinitive. How then should we render an Aorist Middle Subjunctive and what would the difference between the Middle and Active voice be in this case?
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ryan
NEANISKOS
Posts: 106
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Post by ryan on Feb 13, 2012 8:13:15 GMT -7
Well, since they are Aorist Middle Subjunctives, we would better translate them as Aorist Middle Subjunctives and not as Present Imperatives. And everybody knows that an Aorist Subjunctive is a one time action without regard to past or present time. So these should be translated "you should not eat" etc. Come on man, I thought EVERYONE knew this!! (Just kidding.......thanks Bill!!!!)
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Post by Justin on Feb 13, 2012 13:38:55 GMT -7
LOL... yeah, thanks Bill!
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