ryan
NEANISKOS
Posts: 106
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Post by ryan on Aug 4, 2012 6:52:13 GMT -7
12) - Little children, I write to you because you have been forgiven your sins through His name.
13) - Fathers, I write to you because you have known Him from the beginning. I write to you, young men, because you have overcome the evil one. I write to you, little children, because you have known the Father.
14) - Fathers, I have written to you because you have known Him from the beginning. I have written to you, young men, because you are strong, and the Word of God abides in you, and you have overcome the evil.
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ryan
NEANISKOS
Posts: 106
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Post by ryan on Aug 10, 2012 15:51:41 GMT -7
Some questions that arose at the Saturday study last week:
V.12 – How “Little” are these “Little children”? This is the dimunitive form of the word that means "Child by birth". In verse 14 John uses a different word for children that means "Grade school age" children. Some translations have the word "Infants" in verse 12. It would seem a little weird that John would be writing to children THAT young. Or is this all talking about SPIRITUAL maturity, NOT physical? This would make sense because as a spiritual “Infant” pretty much all that they know at that point is that their sins have been forgiven.
V.12 – It’s interesting that it says THE sins. This is plural AND has the definite article. What is this referring to here? Usually when the definite article is used (THE sin) it's referring to the "Sin principle" and not just "A sin", so it's strange that it's plural here. Is it referring to "The sin principles"? That wouldn't make sense either because there is only ONE sin principle right?
V12 – It also says “On account of HIS name”. Not our name. This is interesting.
V.14 - where it says “I wrote”, he is saying the same thing that he already said in the beginning of verse 13, yet this time it’s an Aorist tense showing a single act in the past. When did he “Wrote”? Is this referring to a previous time or a previous letter that was written to them? Or is this referring to earlier in this same letter that he “Wrote to them”? Or, since many believe that 2 and 3 John were written BEFORE 1 John, is John making reference to one of these two books? It doesn’t sound right to say “I am writing” in verse 12 and 13 as in he is presently writing this letter, but then “I wrote” referring back to this letter at the beginning. That doesn’t seem to fly. Any thoughts?
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Post by T on Aug 12, 2012 23:03:46 GMT -7
I just got a headache...
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ryan
NEANISKOS
Posts: 106
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Post by ryan on Aug 14, 2012 16:53:02 GMT -7
?
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Post by Justin on Aug 15, 2012 8:17:14 GMT -7
!
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ryan
NEANISKOS
Posts: 106
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Post by ryan on Aug 15, 2012 10:18:55 GMT -7
^_^. I think what we are both asking Mr. T is "WHAT?"
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Post by Justin on Aug 16, 2012 13:01:00 GMT -7
That's not what I was asking....
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ryan
NEANISKOS
Posts: 106
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Post by ryan on Aug 16, 2012 15:30:23 GMT -7
Well I apologize for assuming. What WERE you asking?
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Post by T on Aug 16, 2012 22:19:08 GMT -7
The "little children" in verse 12 could actually be physical children though right? Because in verse 13 he moves on to address the father's, then the next level down, young men, then little children again. And why does he say the little children have known the Father? What's that supposed to mean?
Also, could John be referring to the Gospel of John, as the past letter that he wrote? At least in that letter he announced that he in fact was the one who was writing the letter. I wish he had done the same for this one. How was this letter proven to even be written by the apostle John?
...I have a headache again
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Post by Justin on Aug 17, 2012 7:37:44 GMT -7
...I have a headache again Follow the instructions on the bottle of Advil... take two and keep away from children! You'll be fine ;D |
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Post by T on Aug 17, 2012 21:41:37 GMT -7
haha Justin!
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ryan
NEANISKOS
Posts: 106
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Post by ryan on Sept 3, 2012 21:26:25 GMT -7
T. I'm not sure that the context allows for it to be referring to a physical age. INFANTS do not have their sins forgiven. Not ALL Fathers have known the One from the beginning and not ALL young men in the word have overcome the evil one. Plus 2:1 shows that John is writing to these “Infants” as a spiritual father. It just wouldn't make sense if it was physical age. My question is this: All of these attributes that John mentions to the different maturity levels are true of ALL those who are saved right? So what is the purpose of John splitting it up into spiritual age groups?
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